Recall that a density $\varphi$ is said to be $\epsilon$-biased if its correlation with every ${\mathbb F}_2$-linear function $f$ is at most $\epsilon$ in magnitude. In the lingo of pseudorandomness, one says that $\varphi$ fools the class of ${\mathbb F}_2$-linear functions:

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## Recent comments

Chin Ho Lee: "(The error will be proportional to \sum_i (||X_i||^3 + ||Y_...Chin Ho Lee: In Example 42, the first Sel(x_1, x_2, x_2) should be Sel(x_...jake wellens: In Ex. 31 (b), I think we should replace $1/M$ by something ...Grigory Yaroslavtsev: Nice, hope you enjoyed your visit :)Yongzhi: I think that the domain of the function g in Fact 21 should ...El Manolo: I can't figure out ex.12 b) and c) in the proposed way. Tha...R.: Is $\rho\neq 0$ required in 1(f)?